Sponsored Links
The biblical story of Adam & Eve is very fascinating. People always seem to have a lot of questions, and I know that when I first started pondering the validity of the bible, I too had plenty of questions and even skepticism. I received 2 more questions regarding Adam & Eve, so I will bunch them together and try to address them all in this article. Here are the questions:
Did Adam and Eve have normal bodily functions prior to the fall? Eat etc. If not why did God create them fully formed as humans capable of all bodily functions unless he knew in advance they would fall. If so couldn’t all those functions be considered sinless -including sex, masturbation, etc. since they were designed as part of man in his pre-fall (sinless) state.
Did they feel pain – say walking in the garden – perhaps on sharp rocks or sticks prior to the fall.
We know God created Adam and Eve as male and female prior to the fall. The Bible also seems to indicate that they were to procreate – again prior to the fall. Since mankind was in a sinless state prior to the fall – this would seem to indicate that sex is per se a sinless act. Is this so?
Moreover we know that many of the early patriarchs had multiple wives and concubines and we find no condemnation of that. What condemnation exists involves things like lusting after another man’s wife or having him killed. One would think that if multiple wives was wrong the old testament would have strongly condemned it. It certainly couldn’t have been right or moral in the old testament and then immoral in the new – sin is sin and unchanging.
Okay, those are some great questions. I will try to address them all within this article below. First, let me start by adding that there are many things the Bible does not tell us about this story, and even the creation itself. There could have been some things God communicated to Adam and Eve, and it wasn’t recorded. So some of the answers will be biblical based, and some will only be speculation.
One thing I want you to understand before you read my replies is that the Bible indicates God had extensive relations with man in the beginning. He talked with them, walked with them, etc. While the Bible records many of these activities, it is very clear that it doesn’t record every detail.
God may very well have given them commands directly or privately, and didn’t see a need for it to be in the Bible. The Bible itself is a book that tells us history & teaches us things (Old Testament), and then gives us Rules for today and the future, as well as giving more teachings and stories in the New Testament. So, with that being said, I will try to answer your questions.
Did Adam & Eve Have Normal Bodily Functions Prior to the Fall?
We can see from the Bible that the answer is YES, Adam and Eve had normal body functions such as eating. We can see this before God even tells them about the command to not eat of the tree of good and evil. In Genesis 1:28: God says the following:
God blessed them and said to them, “Be fruitful and increase in number; fill the earth and subdue it. Rule over the fish of the sea and the birds of the air and over every living creature that moves on the ground.” Then God said, “I give you every seed-bearing plant on the face of the whole earth and every tree that has fruit with seed in it. They will be yours for food.
Here, God is telling them about sex, and actually encouraging them to do it, and also to eat. So yes, they could have had all normal body functions. This includes sex, eating, using the bathroom, etc. When we get into the 2nd Chapter of Genesis, the bible goes back for a minute and retells the story in a little more detail. It tells us that Eve was created from Adam, etc. So it fills in a few details about this time period. We do not know how much time passed between this eating of the forbidden fruit. So anything would only be a guess. All we know is they had bodily functions, could eat, etc. In fact, God encourages them to do so.
So this also answers the 2nd part of the first question. God did create them as male/female from the beginning, long before the fall, and they did indeed have functions.
Couldn’t all those functions of Adam & Eve be considered sinless -including sex, masturbation, etc. since they were designed as part of man in his pre-fall (sinless) state?
Okay, those are lots of questions all within one sentence. So first let’s take this question one step at a time.
Would sex have been considered sinless before the fall between Adam & Eve? Yes, of course. God has never called sex between a married man & woman a sin. Not even today. Not only that, but God tells them to “be fruitful and multiply.” So God encourages this activity between them.
Was masturbation a sin before the fall? First, it is debatable among Christians whether or not masturbation is a sin. Many say it is due to the fact that many people look at pornography, or think excessively lustful thoughts when doing it. I think that if that is being done it is a sin, since the bible clearly tells us not to sin in our hearts. Some say it isn’t a sin if those things aren’t involved. I think the better question is this, “Would Adam & Even have felt the urge to masturbate?” That is a better question, because Eve is created very shortly after Adam. God said it was not “good” for man to be alone (or lonely). So he quickly created Eve.
As a married man, I can open up and tell you something personal (sorry if this seems gross). I don’t have any urge to masturbate because I have a wife. If I feel the urge for sex, I have sex with her. I don’t masturbate. Sex is 1,000,000 times better than masturbation could ever hope to be. Especially if a couple is open, and are both dedicated to ensuring great intimacy. So I don’t see any reason why Adam & Eve would ever want to masturbate, when they could simply have sex, which not only feels way better, but is actually an expression of love and they both connect on a spiritual and physical level. Sex in the right context is incredible. There is no need to “imagine” anything.
So would it have been a sin? Probably not, especially if Adam masturbated with thoughts of his own wife. We don’t know if God discussed this with them or not. Did they ever do it? My guess is probably not since they had each other to fulfill any sexual desires they had. Why masturbate when you can have sex anytime you want, right? And sexual thoughts, desires, and interactions between a married couple is NOT a sin. Never has been, never will be. So even if Adam and Eve did have sexual interactions, it would not have been a sin if they were doing these activities together, or with thoughts of each other, right? Nowhere does the bible say you can’t have a great sex life. It just warns about inappropriate sexual activity, and to not be crazy and lustful about sex all the time (just like it is okay to make money, just don’t hoard up billions while your neighbor starves).
Did Adam and Eve Feel Pain Walking Around the Garden?
The bible does not specifically state that they felt pain, but I think it is reasonable to assume they could have felt some level of pain. Here is why–Immediately after the fall, God says this to Eve:
Genesis 3:16: “…….I will surely MULTIPLY your pain in childbearing…”
Based on this verse, God says the word “MULTIPLY.” To multiply, indicates they must have had some level of pain receptors to begin with. If they had no pain, God would have said, “I will CREATE pain.” So instead of creating it, he is INTENSIFYING it during birth. Another interesting thing to consider is this: when they ate from the forbidden tree, they “gained” knowledge. Where is our knowledge stored? In our brains, right? So our brains “increased” in knowledge (got bigger). What hurts during childbirth the most? That big old head we all have.
Once the baby’s head comes out, the body will literally slide right out. The head is what “hurts.” I am not saying the head literally got bigger when they did this. But it is interesting when you think about that.
So if they had pain at the beginning, it is conceivable that they could have felt some level of pain walking, etc. The bible does not say if this is true, or to what level, but it would be reasonable for God to have created a pain reception for them so they could know not to stab completely through their hands or something. If we didn’t have this pain reception, we would burn our hands off on stoves, etc.
Was Sex a Sinless Act Prior to the Fall of Adam & Eve?
This 3rd main question is similar to the ones above. Here it is exactly:
We know God created Adam and Eve as male and female prior to the fall. The Bible also seems to indicate that they were to procreate – again prior to the fall. Since mankind was in a sinless state prior to the fall – this would seem to indicate that sex is per se a sinless act. Is this so?
Again, sex between a man and woman who are married has NEVER been a sin. Not then, not today. So yes, this act of Adam and Eve having sex would have been sinless. Not only that, it was encouraged by God. Sex between a married husband and wife is an ideal way for 2 people to express love, raise a stable family, etc. God has always been all for it in the right context (a loving marriage).
Was it a Sin for People in the Bible to Have Multiple Wives?
Your last question is in regards to the practice of people having multiple wives. Here is the question copied from above:
Moreover we know that many of the early patriarchs had multiple wives and concubines and we find no condemnation of that. What condemnation exists involves things like lusting after another man’s wife or having him killed. One would think that if multiple wives was wrong the old testament would have strongly condemned it. It certainly couldn’t have been right or moral in the old testament and then immoral in the new – sin is sin and unchanging.
Great question! But first let me start with the very last part of it regarding sin: You state that sin is sin and unchanging. This is both right and wrong. It may help if you understand if I explain the difference between a “sin” and a “law.”
A “sin” is the breaking of a moral “law” that God has given us. A “law” is a command from God. Any time we break a command, it is a sin. A sin simply means “disobedience.” So it is true that a “sin” is always wrong, since a “sin” means you have disobeyed a law.
A “law” is a command. Commands HAVE changed throughout the bible, when necessary or pre-planned by God. So breaking a “law” is a sin. Sins are always wrong. However, “laws” themselves can change, and breaking any “law” is always a sin.
Let me put this into context of today’s time to help you understand this point. The government makes “laws.” The government itself is always the same, right? It is the US Government, and it’s main operation stays the same. However, many laws change every year.
A “sin” to the government is simply breaking the law. So let’s say the government creates a law making it illegal to eat ice cream on Sundays. If you eat ice cream on that day, you “sin” (or break the law). If the law is changed, and it is no longer illegal to eat ice cream on Sundays, then you can eat all you want without committing a “sin.” So according to the bible, disobeying one of God’s commands is always a sin. God’s commands may change to accommodate his will. Also, sometimes God’s laws are very specific, and sometimes they are a general law that cover the basics of behavior (much like our state & federal laws).
Now that I have shown the difference between a “sin” and a “law,” let’s look at the question regarding multiple wives. I think it helps to break up parts of this into separate parts as well. So I will try to address each specific component regard the multiple wives thing:
Did God Ever Approve of Multiple Wives (Polygamy)?
This is a hard question, because while the bible records instances of people having multiple wives who obviously had God’s approval (King David, Solomon, Abraham, etc.), we never find a specific indication that God found it appropriate or commanded it. Also, we know that even though these people had God’s favor, they all still “sinned” at times in their lives and disappointed God. Having multiple wives may or may not have pleased God, but I get the feeling God didn’t find it totally appropriate. Whether or not God holds them accountable to this is up to God. But if you see the “strings” that came with this practice (see number 6 especially), you will see this is not a wise way to do it.
He never indicates approval of this behavior, and he never specifically condemns it at this point in history with a specific command. Based on this, we cannot logically assume that God did or did not approve of it. What I do know is that marriage was preferred by God to be between one man and one woman. I can say this for a few reasons: First, God created Adam and Eve—not Adam, Eve, Jennifer, Shannon, Suzie, etc.
Secondly, early on in the bible God says this in Genesis 2:24, right after creating Eve:
“Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become one flesh of.”
Notice that it doesn’t say, man shall leave and cleave to his “WIVES” and become “MANY” fleshes. It indicates God approves of 1 man and 1 woman.
Could God Have Allowed Polygamy To Exist for a Short Time?
We can speculate that, yes, it is possible (not certain) that God may have allowed this practice and not specifically condemned them or judged them for it. At the same time, the bible could have been merely recording the facts, and it could be that God may have condemned them, or not really approved of it. In addition, this could have been an isolated case that God specifically allowed to fulfill his covenant promise of increased offspring (such as in the case of Abraham & King David).
If God did approve of this, it is obvious that there were “strings” and “consequences” attached to it. Here are the “strings” and “consequences” attached to having multiple wives that we can infer from the Bible:
1. Men had to stay with these wives- they couldn’t just marry them, have sex, and leave them for dead-that is for sure a sin (fornication or adultery). They had to stay with them & provide for them financially. Each additional wive was also an additional mouth to feed (burden) and roof over another head. At this point in history, money and resources were tight. Famines or short supplies could kill people fast. The more wives there were, the more burden.
Women did not have a high place in society at this point either. It wasn’t because they were inferior. They simply focused on the “full time job” of child raising, cooking, etc. Back then it would have been very hard for women to do much more than this. You have to keep in mind that the man killed the animals, the woman would have likely sat there all day skinning it, tearing the feathers off, etc. So you can see how much time it would be to simply cook a meal. They couldn’t exactly go to Walmart or McDonald’s.
2. Women have always slightly outnumbered men in terms of population. So it is possible God could have temporarily allowed this up until a certain point in history. Again, women would have found it much more difficult to survive with a male back in those days. Men did much of the hunting and gathering, while women focused on other “lighter” and less aggressive duties.
3. It still allows for procreation, which was a command from God, and also a mother and father to raise a child. Granted, polygamy isn’t ideal. I think God knows it isn’t ideal, which is why the bible specifically talks of one man and one wife when referencing God’s commands. But you have to consider that population was almost non-existent with Adam and Eve. So God could have allowed this for a short time. Not only that, but in terms of Adam & Eve’s children, they could have even been allowed to marry siblings, since it assumed the genetic code did not yet have the number of mutations it does today which could allow for reproduction between siblings with no problem. They still had to stay “married” though.
4. It would not have been appropriate for the men to sleep with all of the women at one time (such as orgies), or for the women to have relations with one another. This is true because we clearly see that many times a man would sleep with a wife at separate times. So they did not partake in giant orgies. Instead, it was more about procreation, survival, and life & death, etc.
5. Also, we have God making “covenants” with King David, Abraham, etc. In these covenants, God promises to multiply their offspring. So because God created this covenant, God may have allowed this to fulfill his promise-which did come true.
6. Each time this happens, it always has a serious negative consequence on the entire family. When Abraham had a son by a different woman, it caused a conflict that CONTINUES TO THIS DAY! (Muslims vs. Jews). When David did this, it caused a conflict and led him to murder Uriah. When Solomon did this, it caused him to temporarily worship false Gods, etc. So since so much negativity comes out of it, I think it is clear to see that God would not have viewed this is a great way of doing things.
Is Polygamy (Multiple Wives) Appropriate Today?
While the New Testament does not specifically condemn multiple wives, it does repeatedly teach that 1 man and 1 woman is the natural and appropriate way (1 Timothy 3:12). Since the bible continually states 1 man and 1 woman is the best and most appropriate way, I don’t think polygamy would be appropriate.
Not only that, but the Bible DOES specifically command us to follow all the rules of the government as long as they do not interfere with a DIRECT COMMAND from God. Since there is no direct command to have more than 1 wife, and the government makes this practice illegal, it would be wrong to do it, and thus would now be breaking a command from God.
It is not necessary today, as we have programs to help unfortunate people, we have an appropriate population, etc. Again, this is based on the above two paragraphs of why I think it is inappropriate today. Plus we know that God does not find this “ideal,” and it has very serious consequences (even today, the news stories of young women being forced into multiple marriages, etc.).
What Condemnation Exists Involving Things Like Lusting After Another Man’s Wife or Having Him Killed.
The answer to this question is that it is wrong to lust after another man’s wife, or murder. God has always indicated this is wrong, since the killing of Abel. Cain knew better at this point, but killed him anyways. God has provided these laws since the beginning. We do not know what means God may have done this. Again, we know God actually spoke directly with these people for a long time. So while some commands may not have been recorded in the bible, it is VERY LIKELY that God spoke many things to them in the beginning, even with Adam and Eve.
The condemnation that exists for any “sin” or breaking of “moral law,” is that God will judge us according to that standard. Those activities have always been condemned, and while the Old Testament may not record them specifically, it does not mean God did not communicate those laws to them directly. Again, we know God talked with them individually.
This goes back to the statement I made at the beginning. While the bible does not show all laws God may have spoken to Adam, Eve, and their descendants—it is clear that He communicated with them.
Thanks again for all of the great questions! Have a great day!
Sponsored Links
Posted under Ask a Question, Genesis
This post was written by Revelation on February 4, 2009
